It is also possible for two
nations to trade to mututal benefit where one nation has no absolute advantage
over the other in the production of any good, so long as a comparative
advantage exists. David Ricardo showed that a poor country without any absolute
industrial advantage can still trade to mutual benefit with a rich country.
Given the following
assumptions:
(a)
Both the United
States and India produce only two goods, wheat (food) and burlap (clothing).
(b)
Labor is the only
variable factor of production, but its productivity differs in each country.
(c)
In each country,
the productivity of labor is constant respective to the scale of production.
(d)
Labor in each
country is fully employed.
(e)
There is no
migration of labor between the two nations.
(f)
Although output
per man-hour is greater in the United States than in India for both products,
the productivity gap in wheat is not proportional to the productivity gap in
burlap.
Also suppose the following schedule:
Product
|
Hours of labor in United States
|
Hours of labor in India
|
1 Bushel of Wheat
|
1
|
10
|
1 Meter of Burlap
|
2
|
10
|
The United States is
absolutely more efficient in both products. However, it takes 10 times as much
effort to produce wheat in India than in the U.S., but only 5 times as much
effort to produce burlap. India has a comparative advantage in burlap and the
U.S. has a comparative advantage in wheat.
If I live in the U.S. and I
want a meter of burlap, I can pay the value of 2 hours of labor and buy one
locally. Alternately, I can pay the value of 1½ hours of labor for 1½ bushels
of wheat, which I trade to India for a meter of burlap. This is to India’s
benefit since wheat and burlap cost the same on Indian market. I now have my
meter of burlap for less than it would have cost to produce locally, so I have
benefited.
If two countries engage in
mutual trade where a comparative advantage exists, the actions of independent
traders will tend to establish a market price for different goods. In the
example above, we start out with a bushel of wheat worth 1 meter of burlap in
India, and 2 meters in the U.S. As trading occurs, the U.S. will specialize in
wheat and India will specialize in burlap, and eventually the relative prices
will be equal in both markets. Without knowing more about the preferences of
consumers, all that can be said is that the price ratio will be somewhere
between 1 and 2. As long as the ratio is different in the two countries, there
will be an incentive for trading and specialization to occur that will tend to
move the ratio closer to equal.
Each country has a production
possibility frontier that shows the efficient combinations of wheat and burlap
that can be produced in that country. It is also possible to draw a production
possibility frontier that shows the efficient production possibilities across
both countries. This frontier will show that specialization allows greater
total production between the two countries than they would have been able to
achieve acting independently.
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